Phillipians 2.5-7 - Discovery Website

Search
Go to content

Main menu:

Phillipians 2.5-7

Jesus as 'God' in the New Testament

Philippians 2.5-7

t
outo   phroneite     en  hymin  ho      kai    Christō  Iēsou          hos  en   morphē    Theou
τοῦτο φρονεῖτε      ἐν  ὑμῖν  ,  ὃ        καὶ    Χριστῷ  Ἰησοῦ  ;      ὃς  , ἐν   μορφῇ      Θεοῦ
This    let mind be   in  you      which  also  Christ    Jesus [was] who  in   [the] form of God

hyparchōn  ouch  harpagmon                     hēgēsato      to  einai  isa      Theō         alla   heauton
ὑπάρχων  , οὐχ    ἁρπαγμὸν                       ἡγήσατο      τὸ  εἶναι  ἴσα      Θεῷ  ,       ἀλλὰ  ἑαυτὸν
subsisting   not    something to be grasped  esteemed it   -  to be  equal  with God    but    himself

ekenōsen     morphēn    doulou           labōn              en  homoiōmati     anthrōpōn  genomenos
ἐκένωσεν  ,   μορφὴν     δούλου          λαβών  ,          ἐν   ὁμοιώματι       ἀνθρώπων  γενόμενος  .
emptied       [the] form  of a servant    having taken    in   [the] likeness  of men       having been made

In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:
who, being in very nature God,
    did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
rather, he made himself nothing
    by taking the very nature of a servant,
    being made in human likeness.

     The structure of this passage, as many writers have observed, suggests that it belongs to an early Christian hymn or creed. Strictly speaking, it provides an indirect rather than a direct reference to Christ’s deity, stating that he possessed ‘the form of God’ (RSV). However, since several modern translations interpret this as a direct statement of deity (‘Though he was God’ NLT; ‘Christ was truly God’ CEV) and since the passage contains problems of interpretation similar to the other verses we are examining here, it deserves consideration alongside them.

 a)  The meaning of morphe theou

      By referring to Christ as morphe theou (‘the form of God’) what is actually Paul actually implying? One possible suggestion, favoured by writers such as Cullmann and Dunn,<1> is that it is another way of describing the creation of man in God’s image in Genesis 1: 26. If this is the case, the passage may then be going on to compare Christ’s obedience in refusing to act independently of the Father with Adam’s disobedience in following the serpent’s suggestion to make himself like God (Gen 3: 5-6).


     Persuasive though it is, however, there are several problems with this idea. Firstly, although morphe can mean ‘image’, ‘likeness’ or ‘appearance’, it more typically refers to the inner nature or essence of something. Confirmation of this can be found in Phil 2:7, which states that Christ took the morphe of a servant. Given that Christ did not simply ‘look’ or ‘appear’ to be a servant, but was a servant, we ought logically to assume that by possessing the morphe of God, Christ was ‘in very nature God’, to quote the NIV’s translation. (A similar implication can be found in Gal 4:19 where Paul talks about Christ being formed [morphoo] in us.)

      Secondly, if Paul had intended a direct reference to the Genesis story, he could have done so much more openly, either by introducing a direct reference to Adam, as in Romans 5: 12-21, or by replacing morphe with eikon (‘image’), the word used in the Septuagint translation of Gen 1: 26.<2> And while an emphasis on Christ’s obedience as opposed to Adam’s disobedience would help to explain Paul’s change of subject-matter in verse 12, the immediate context of the passage has to do with humility and the surrender of personal rights and privileges, rather than obedience in itself.


       Furthermore, if we understand morphe theou to be a reference to Christ’s human nature, it seems unnecessary to go on to talk about him ‘being made in human likeness’ and ‘being found in appearance as a man’ (v 7-8) as a subsequent idea. In conclusion, therefore, there seems good evidence to support the view held by the majority of commentators down through the ages that the passage is indeed referring to Christ’s pre-existence and to his divine nature.

 b)  The meaning of harpagmos

      According to how one translates this Greek word, the next part of the verse can variously be taken to mean that Christ

 (i)  refused to grasp at an equal status he did not share with the Father
 (ii)  refused to exploit an equality he did share with the Father
 (iii)  regarded equality with the Father as his by natural right

      The likely choice, which probably centres on the first two of these, hinges partly on the way we interpret morphe theou. If it is understood as describing Christ’s human nature, (or even, following the belief system of the Jehovah’s Witnesses, as a created angelic being), the first version makes excellent sense: ‘Though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped’ (RSV).  It is also attractive in setting up a direct contrast with Isaiah 14: 12-15, traditionally understood in Christian interpretation as referring to Satan, who tries to snatch at equality with Yahweh, only to be cast down to earth. This might suit the context of a discussion in which Paul has just warned in verse 3 about ‘selfish ambition’ and ‘vain conceit’.
      
      There are problems, however, with this view. For a start, there is no direct warrant in the text for a reference back to Isaiah 14: 12-15, any more than there is to Genesis 1: 26. Moreover, it makes little sense if, as we argued in the previous section, morphe theou actually refers to Christ’s divine nature. For this reason, we should seriously consider the second version, which again fits well with the sense of the preceding passage (‘Each of you should look not only to your own interests, but also to the interests of others’, v 4). Moreover, it accords better with the doctrine of other parts of the New Testament (John 5: 18 talks of Christ’s equality with the Father even in the context of his humanity) and it fits well with the use of the word in other Greek documents from the period. Since the natural sense of the passage implies an equivalence between Christ’s being ‘in the form of God’ and being ‘equal to God’, there are strong reasons, therefore, for preferring this reading.

 c)  The meaning of kenoo

       This word in Greek refers to an emptying: it appears elsewhere in the New Testament at Rom 4: 14; 1 Cor 1: 17, 9: 15;  and 2 Cor 9: 3. The question here is what, precisely, did Christ give up in ‘taking the very nature of a servant’? Did he lose all his attributes as God in the incarnation? Or did he simply lay aside his glory and majesty? In the past a number of writers have suggested that the Son surrendered something permanent in the incarnation, and perhaps that the human Jesus lost all consciousness of deity.

      But the sense of the word kenoo is affected by two other Greek words which help to define the context. Huparchon (‘Christ Jesus ... being [or ‘continuing to be’] in very nature God’, v 5-6) suggests an unending state of deity, while schema (‘being found in appearance as a man’, v 8) seems to limit the sense in which Christ stopped being God, without in any way denying his complete humanity. In other words, to quote E. L. Strong,

      He divested Himself, not of His divine nature, which was impossible, but of the condition of glory and majesty which is His by right of that nature, and He did this by entering into man’s nature and making it His own . . . <3>


     The balance of probabilities, therefore, seems to favour the interpretation that Christ, though possessing the nature of God, did not cling on to the privileges that were his by right as the Father’s equal, but freely laid aside his majesty, ‘neither losing nor diminishing the form of God’ (to use Augustine’s words)<4> but at the same time taking the role of a slave, who, in the Roman world, possessed no status or rights of any kind.


     Given the range of possible options, however, we should not be too dogmatic in our interpretation of the passage. In particular, we should note that the verses which follow do not obviously suggest the restoration of a glory that Christ already possessed  (the glory we read about in John 17: 5), but rather suggest that he acquired something completely new. Robert Reymond has argued that the second half of the hymn makes little sense unless it is Christ’s human nature which is primarily in view in verses 5-7.<5> But the same apparent contradiction is also present in Hebrews 1: 1-4, where the Son, despite being ‘the radiance of God’s glory’ and the sustainer of the universe, nevertheless has to be appointed heir of all things and to acquire a name superior to the angels only after he has ‘provided purification for sins’.


      In any case, we should remember that what we are dealing with here is poetry, not prose. It makes sense, therefore, to search out a variety of different levels of meaning in the passage’s portrayal of Christ, who like the ‘Arm of the LORD’ discussed in Chapter Five of But is he God appears both as an extension of the personality of Yahweh and also as the ‘suffering servant’ who acts on his behalf. If this leaves us with another paradox, it is a paradox which leads us into the very heart of the mystery of redemption.



 
Back to content | Back to main menu